HI Paul,
Thanks for your response. What I understood from the link is - If we use virtual inheritance, then we will have one copy of base class, but what is the internal representation in vtable so that it will be clear diagramatically.
Please help.
regards - Ravi
--- On Thu, 30/6/11, PJH <pauljherring@gmail.com> wrote:
From: PJH <pauljherring@gmail.com>
Subject: Re: (PT) Want to understand the Diamond Problem.
To: Programmers-Town@yahoogroups.com
Date: Thursday, 30 June, 2011, 9:49 PM
http://www.parashift.com/c++-faq-lite/multiple-inheritance.html#faq-25.8
On Thu, Jun 30, 2011 at 5:09 PM, Ravi Shankar <blr_ravi2006@yahoo.co.in>wrote:
> Hi All,
> As everyone knows about Diamond problem.Suppose we have class A with fun()
> as a member functionClass B and C are derived from Class A. Class D is
> derived from Class B and Class C. Now, if I create an object of class D and
> called fun() from the same object, then it will give compilation error of
> "ambiguity". So, we have to virtually inherited class B and C from A to
> resolve this problem.
> My doubt is -> How does it create one copy of fun() in D's object ? Can
> someone help me to understand how does it internally work ? For B and C,
> does it create a vptr for both the class ?
> Please help me to understand the same or guide me to understand it. regards
> -Ravi
>
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>
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--
PJH
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